Course Review Notes
Chapter 1: Astronomy
1.
The study of the universe is referred
to as:
A) astrology.
B) cosmology.
C) astronomy.
D) cosmetology.
E) meteorology.
Answer: C
2.
The distances to other stars beyond
the Sun are measured in:
A) kilometers.
B) astronomical units.
C) light days.
D) light months.
E) light years.
Answer: E
3.
Modern scientific theories are NOT:
A) testable.
B) continuously tested.
C) simple.
D) perfect.
E) elegant.
Answer: D
4.
The greek scientist who applied the
scientific method to lunar eclipses was:
A) Aristotle.
B) Aristarchus.
C) Erastothenes.
D) Archimedes.
E) Pythagoras.
Answer: A
5.
Which of the following describes
parallax?
A) It is best measured over exactly one year intervals.
B) It is inversely proportional to the distance to the
star.
C) It was first observed by Galileo with his new
telescope.
D) It is only applicable to objects within the solar
system.
E) It is more accurate as the distances to objects
becomes greater.
Answer: B
Chapter 2: Copernican Revolution
1)
The most famous prehistoric astronomical observatory is:
A) the Sphinx.
B) Stonehenge.
C) Big Horn stone circle.
D) Carcacol.
E) Mount Rushmore.
Answer: B
2. The Ptolemaic model of the universe:
A) explained and predicted the motions of the planets
with deferents and epicycles.
B) is the basis of our modern cosmology.
C) could not account for the stellar parallax observed
by Hipparchus.
D) describes the orbits of the planets as being
ellipses, not circles.
E) always kept Mars and Mercury between the Earth and
Sun.
Answer: A
3.
The Ptolemaic
model probably persisted for all these reasons EXCEPT:
A) it had the authority of Aristotle behind it.
B) it was consistent with the doctrines of the Catholic
Church.
C) it used perfect circles, which appealed to geometry.
D) it accounted well for Galileo's observations of the
phase cycle of Venus.
E) it explain why stellar parallax was not observed by
the Greeks.
Answer: D
4.
The
greatest contribution of the Greeks to modern thought was:
A) the idea that all the planets orbited the Sun.
B) that their mythology was the basis for the naming of
the constellations.
C) that their observation of stellar parallax proved
the Earth orbited the Sun.
D) the development of scientific inquiry and model
building.
E) the invention of the telescope.
Answer: D
5.
On which of these assumptions do Ptolemy and Copernicus agree?
A) The Earth must be the center of all motion in the
Cosmos.
B) All orbits must be perfect circles.
C) The Sun was bigger than the Earth.
D) Venus must always stay between us and the Sun.
E) The Sun must orbit us, but the planets do orbit the
Sun.
Answer: B
6.
The heliocentric model was actually first proposed by:
A) Aristotle.
B) Archimedes.
C) Aristarchus.
D) Alexander the Great.
E) Hipparchus.
Answer: C
7.
Which of the following is a contribution to astronomy made by
Galileo?
A) The astronomical telescope can show us far more
detail than the eye can.
B) Jupiter has four moons orbiting it.
C) The Moon has craters, mountain, valleys, and dark
flat areas on its surface.
D) Venus appears almost fully lit when it lies on the
far side of the Sun.
E) All of the above are his discoveries.
Answer: E
8.
Which of these was not seen telescopically by Galileo?
A) sunspots
B) Venus' phase cycle
C) Four moons around Jupiter
D) stellar parallax
E) Craters and mare on the Moon
Answer: D
9
Which concept was NOT a part of Kepler's Laws of Planetary Motion?
A) All planetary orbits are ellipses.
B) The square of the planet's period is equal to the
cube of its average distance.
C) A planet must move fastest in its orbit at
perihelion.
D) Epicycles are needed to explain the varying
brightnesses of the planets.
E) The line that connects the Sun to Mercury sweeps out
the same area in a month as does the line connecting us to the Sun.
Answer: D
10. According to
Kepler's third law, the square of the planet's period in years is:
A) equal to its perihelion distance from the Sun in
A.U.
B) inversely proportional to its mass in kilograms.
C) equal to the fourth power of its average temperature
in degrees Kelvin.
D) proportional to the cube of its semimajor axis in
A.U.
E) equal to the square of its aphelion distance in A.U.
Answer: D
11. What contribution
to astronomy was made by Tycho Brahe?
A) The planets' orbits around the Sun are ellipses, not
circles.
B) The Earth is not the center of the Universe.
C) His observations of planetary motion with great
accuracy proved circular orbits could not work.
D) His telescope revealed the moons of Jupiter before
Galileo noted them.
E) Retrograde motion must be explained by epicycles
larger than those of Ptolemy.
Answer: C
12. Upon which point
do Copernicus and Kepler disagree?
A) The Moon orbits the Earth.
B) The Earth orbits the Sun.
C) Retrograde motion occurs when one planet overtakes
another.
D) The orbits of the planets are ellipses, with one
focus at the Sun.
E) Venus will appear as a crescent when she retrogrades
between us and the Sun.
Answer: D
13. The Law of
Universal Gravitation was developed by:
A) Kepler.
B) Galileo.
C) Newton.
D) Copernicus.
E) Einstein.
Answer: C
14. Which of these was
a contribution of Newton to astronomy?
A) Artificial satellites could be put into orbit about
the Earth.
B) The Sun's gravity is greatest on a planet at
perihelion, so the planet must speed up.
C) The Moon pulls as strongly on us as we do on it.
D) His differential calculus lets us calculate
planetary motions more accurately.
E) All of these were due to Newton's work.
Answer: E
15. The force of
gravity between two objects:
A) increases with the masses of the bodies, but
decreases with their separations.
B) increases with the masses of the bodies, but
decreases with the square of the distances between them.
C) increases with the square of their masses, but
decreases with the cube of their periods of orbit about the Sun.
D) depends on the density, not the mass of the bodies.
E) depends on the temperature, density, and size of the
bodies.
Answer: B
Chapter 3: Information
from Radiation
1. The number of waves
passing the observer per second is:
A) the wavelength in angstroms.
B) the amplitude in nm.
C) the frequency in Hertz.
D) the period in seconds.
E) the energy in milliwatts.
Answer: C
2. The distance
between successive wave crests defines the ________ of a wave.
A) wavelength
B) frequency
C) period
D) amplitude
E) energy
Answer: A
3. Which of these is
constant for all types of electromagnetic radiation in space?
A) amplitude
B) energy
C) speed
D) frequency
E) wavelength
Answer: C
4. Light waves differ
fundamentally from water or sound waves because:
A) they do not require a material medium for
transmission.
B) they have many different wavelengths.
C) they all have the same energy.
D) they can only travel at one speed, regardless of the
medium.
E) the energy of all light waves is constant.
Answer: A
5. Radial motion can
be revealed by spectroscopic analysis using the:
A) the Photoelectric Effect.
B) Newtonian Relativity.
C) the Doppler Effect.
D) Gravitational Redshift.
E) Stefan's Law.
Answer: C
6. If a light source
is approaching you, you will observe:
A) an apparent red shift of its spectral lines.
B) that its light has become much bluer in color.
C) that all of its spectral lines have become shorter
in wavelength.
D) that the amplitude of its waves have increased.
E) that the speed of its photons have increased.
Answer: C
Chapter 4: Spectroscopy
1. What is
spectroscopy?
A) an analysis of the way in which atoms absorb and
emit light
B) a study of the geometry of rainbows
C) an observational technique to measure the brightness
of light at different colors
D) the use of CCDs to capture light more efficiently
than with photographic film
E) a method to freeze atmospheric turbulence for better
resolution
Answer: A
2. Typical stellar
spectra appear as:
A) a series of bright, colored lines.
B) an unbroken rainbow of colors.
C) a rainbow, but with some dark lines mixed in.
D) a rainbow with some bright lines on top of the
continuum.
E) a very red shifted rainbow due to the expansion of
the universe.
Answer: C
3. The three laws
dealing with the creation of various spectra are due to:
A) Newton.
B) Fraunhofer.
C) Kirchoff.
D) Bohr.
E) Einstein.
Answer: C
4. The classical model
of the hydrogen atom that explains its spectral line structure is due to:
A) Kirchoff.
B) Bohr.
C) Fraunhofer.
D) Newton.
E) Mendeleev.
Answer: B
5. Spectral lines are
often referred to as the stars' "fingerprints" because:
A) fingerprints also consist of individual lines that
make a pattern.
B) both are unique to their source.
C) both can be easily categorized.
D) both are characteristic of the individual that
produced them.
E) All of these are correct.
Answer: E
6. Einstein's Nobel
Prize in Physics was actually awarded for his:
A) Special Theory of relativity.
B) General Theory of Relativity.
C) work on the photoelectric effect and the nature of
electron orbitals.
D) work on the Manhattan Project and the atomic bomb.
E) discovery of the expansion of the universe.
Answer: C
Chapter 5: Telescopes
1. Why are most large
telescopes reflectors, not refractors?
A) Large lenses deform under their own weight, but
mirrors can be supported.
B) Large mirrors need only one optical surface,
achromats four surfaces to grind.
C) Reflectors do not suffer from chromatic aberration
like refractors do.
D) Large, very clear lenses are harder to cast than
more tolerant mirror blanks.
E) All of the above are correct.
Answer: E
2. Which design has a
convex primary mirror and flat secondary mirror, with the eyepiece located
on the top side of the telescope tube?
A) refractor
B) Newtonian reflector
C) Cassegrain reflector
D) prime focus reflector
E) interferometer
Answer: B
3. This design
combines the radiation from two different scopes to greatly enhance
resolution via computer synthesis.
A) Cassegrain reflector
B) Newtonian reflector
C) prime focus reflector
D) refractor
E) interferometer
Answer: E
4. The tendency of a
wave to bend as it passes from one transparent medium to another is called:
A) reflection.
B) dispersion.
C) refraction.
D) diffraction.
E) interference.
Answer: C
5. The process
occurring when photons bounce off a polished surface is called:
A) diffraction.
B) refraction.
C) reflection.
D) dispersion.
E) interference.
6. Which branch of
astronomy is focused on precise measurement of brightness?
A) spectroscopy
B) photography
C) astrometry
D) photometry
E) interferometry
Answer: D
7. The instrument that
analyzes the colors and temperatures of stars best is a:
A) photometer.
B) interferometer.
C) spectrometer.
D) barometer.
E) CCD imager.
Answer: C
8. What are two
advantages of large scopes over smaller ones?
A) Large scopes have a larger field of view and sharper
focus.
B) Large scopes are not subject to atmospheric
turbulence and opacity like smaller ones.
C) Large scopes are easier to mount and control than
small ones.
D) Large telescope have more light grasp and better
resolution.
E) Large telescopes give higher magnification and are
easier to build.
Answer: D
9. What is the
resolving power of the telescope?
A) the ability to make distant objects appear closer
B) the ability to collect a lot of light
C) the ability to detect very faint objects
D) the ability to distinguish adjacent objects in the
sky
E) the ability to separate light into its component
colors
Answer: D
10. What is the
primary purpose of an astronomical telescope?
A) To magnify and make distant objects appear closer.
B) To separate light into its component colors.
C) To measure the intensity of light very accurately.
D) To access wavelengths that we cannot see visually.
E) To collect a lot of light and bring it to a focus.
Answer: E
11. A mountain top is
an especially good site for infrared telescopes since:
A) there you are closer to celestial objects.
B) you are above most of the carbon dioxide and water
vapor in the atmosphere.
C) the cold weather helps the sensitivity of infrared
detectors.
D) less air above means better seeing in many cases.
E) All of the above are factors.
Answer: E
12. Which of the
following is a problem inherent in all large radio telescopes?
A) They are badly affected by poor seeing and
atmospheric turbulence.
B) The lightest breeze shakes them, making the
observations blurry.
C) Their waves are blocked by water vapor, so they must
be located in deserts.
D) Radio waves have long wavelengths, so radio
telescopes have poor resolution.
E) The dust clouds in the Milky Way block almost all
wavelengths except light.
Answer: D
13. Radio dishes are
large in order to:
A) attract funding from NASA and the NSF.
B) give greater magnification.
C) increase their angular resolution and collect the
very weak radio photons.
D) increase the range of waves they can collect.
E) detect shorter waves than optical telescopes for
superior resolution.
Answer: C
14. For what is an
interferometer used?
A) to decrease the impact of poor seeing on telescope
resolution
B) to increase the light grasp by combining the surface
area of both scopes
C) to decrease the effects of light pollution on light
grasp
D) to increase the sensitivity of infrared detectors
E) to improve the angular resolution of all types of
telescopes
Answer: E
15. The name of the
new Infrared Orbiting Observatory is the:
A) Hubble Space Telescope.
B) Compton Observatory.
C) Spitzer Space Telescope.
D) Chandra Orbiting Telescope.
E) Newton Imaging System.
Answer: C
Chapter 6: Comparative
Planetology
1. Our understanding
of the solar system has come in a way that can best be described as:
A) constant since prehistoric times.
B) slow and steady since the discovery of the telescope
by Galileo.
C) erratic, with spurts when new planets were found.
D) steady until the last decade, when the decline in
the space program slowed it a great deal.
E) explosive, with us learning more in the past few
decades than in all previous history.
Answer: E
2. What is the goal of
comparative planetology?
A) to use planetary positions to foretell the future
B) to find which planets will be most suitable for
future colonization
C) to help plan future visits by unmanned probes,
orbiters, and rovers
D) to determine the origin and evolution of the solar
system
E) to find out how our own solar system compares with
extrasolar ones
Answer: D
3. The plane in which
almost all planets orbit the sun is called the:
A) equator of the solar system.
B) ecliptic.
C) equant.
D) node.
E) galactic plane.
Answer: B
4. Which of these is
NOT a jovian planet?
A) Jupiter
B) Saturn
C) Uranus
D) Neptune
E) Pluto
Answer: E
5. Which of the
following are terrestrial planets?
A) only Earth
B) the Earth, Moon, and Venus
C) Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars
D) Mercury, Venus, Earth, Moon, Mars, and Pluto
E) Mercury, Venus, Earth, Moon, Mars, and Ceres
Answer: C
6. Which of the
following is NOT a way that terrestrial and jovian planets differ?
A) Spinning rapidly, jovians are more oblate than solid
terrestrials.
B) Jovian orbits are more eccentric than terrestrials,
and farther off the ecliptic.
C) Jovians have many more satellites than do
terrestrials.
D) Jovians have rings, terrestrials don't.
E) Jovians are less dense than any of the terrestrials.
Answer: B
7. How do the
densities of the jovian and terrestrial planets compare?
A) Made from the same solar nebula, they are all
similar.
B) More massive jovians all have high densities,
compared to the tiny terrestrials.
C) All terrestrials are more dense than any of the
jovians.
D) The closer a planet lies to the Sun, the less its
density.
E) No real pattern here; densities vary greatly and are
very individual to each world.
Answer: C
8. In density and
size, Pluto is most like a:
A) large asteroid.
B) jovian planet.
C) terrestrial planet.
D) large jovian moon.
E) small comet.
Answer: D
9. In composition and
mass and density, Jupiter is most like:
A) a huge comet.
B) a gigantic asteroid.
C) the Sun.
D) a huge Kuiper belt Object.
E) a large terrestrial planet.
Answer: C
10.
In composition and density, the
asteroids most resemble:
A) comets.
B) the Sun.
C) jovian moons.
D) pieces of terrestrial planets.
E) Kuiper Belt objects like Pluto.
Answer: D
11. Which of the
following falls into the category of interplanetary debris?
A) everything orbiting the Sun in the ecliptic plane
B) dust orbiting the Sun in the ecliptic plane, as seen
around other young stars
C) large and small comets and asteroids and grains of
dust
D) only the Kuiper Belt objects
E) only asteroids with orbits between 2-5 A.U.
Answer: C
12. Which statement
about comets is NOT true?
A) Their orbits tend to be more eccentric than those of
asteroids.
B) Their densities are higher than those of asteroids.
C) They tend to be made of ice that easily vaporizes
near perihelion.
D) They look fuzzy, while asteroids appear as moving
points of light.
E) Their average distances from the Sun are far greater
than those of asteroids.
Answer: B
13. Most asteroids are
found:
A) beyond the orbit of Neptune.
B) between the Earth and Sun.
C) between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.
D) in the orbit of Jupiter, but 60 degrees ahead or
behind it.
E) orbiting the jovian planets in captured, retrograde
orbits.
Answer: C
14. A gravitational
"sling-shot":
A) causes comets to crash into planets, such as Jupiter
in 1994.
B) allowed the Apollo astronauts to reach the Moon in
1969.
C) is the accepted theory for the formation of the
asteroid belt.
D) changes the speed and direction of a spacecraft
nearing a massive planet.
E) explains how the solar system was formed after a
near collision with another star.
Answer: D
Chapter 7: Earth
1. From the center
outward, the correct order is:
A) liquid iron inner core, solid nickel outer core,
rocky mantle, silicate crust.
B) solid metallic inner core, molten metal outer core,
silicate mantle and crust.
C) solid metal core, molten metal hydrosphere, rocky
lithosphere, gases in atmosphere.
D) solid rock core, liquid metal mantle, solid rock
crust.
E) molten metal hydrosphere, molten rock lithosphere,
solid silicate crust.
Answer: B
2. The oldest rocks on
our crust are radioactively dated at about:
A) 200 million years old.
B) one billion years old.
C) 2.7 billion years old.
D) four billion years old.
E) 4.6 billion years old.
Answer: D
3. Which statement
about the Earth's core is FALSE?
A) Its primary components are iron and nickel.
B) It generates a strong, stable magnetic field.
C) The pressure solidifies the center, but the outer
core is fluid.
D) Its rotation gives rise to the Dynamo Effect.
E) It is about the same temperature as the photosphere
of the Sun.
Answer: B
4. The region around
Earth where the magnetic field traps charged particles is the:
A) ozone layer.
B) exosphere.
C) Van Allen Radiation Belts.
D) corona.
E) aurora borealis and aurstralis.
Answer: C
5. The presence of a
magnetic field is a good indication that:
A) the Earth's interior is similar to Mercury's, as
both have fields.
B) a huge iron meteorite lies somewhere high up in the
mantle, not in the core.
C) we have a liquid metal outer core, spinning rapidly
as we rotate.
D) the Earth's interior must be completely molten to
the center.
E) the Earth's interior has had time to solidify, with
a rigid bar magnet created.
Answer: C
6. Which body has the
greatest gravitational pull on Earth?
A) the Sun
B) the Moon
C) Mars
D) Jupiter
E) None have an impact, as all are too distant.
Answer: A
Chapter 8: Moon and
Mercury
1)
The best way to find the exact distance to the Moon is to:
A) measure its exact size in the telescope.
B) use radar reflection times, about 2.56 second.
C) bounce lasers off the retroreflectors left on the
surface by the Apollo landings.
D) make parallax measurements from observatories on
opposite sides of the Earth.
E) use stellar occultations for precise timings of the
moon's position.
Answer: C
2. Which planet shows
us the widest range of temperatures between night and day?
A) Mercury
B) Venus
C) Mars
D) Jupiter
E) Uranus
Answer: A
3. How do the escape
velocities of the jovians compare with the terrestrials?
A) Denser terrestrials all have higher escape
velocities.
B) All planets have similar escape velocities.
C) The velocities vary greatly from planet to planet,
with no general trend.
D) The more massive jovians all have higher escape
velocities.
E) Escape velocity has no meaning if there is no solid
surface.
Answer: D
4. Mercury experiences
extreme high and low temperatures between night and day because:
A) it is so close to the Sun.
B) its dense atmosphere creates a runaway greenhouse.
C) its oceans are much hotter than ours.
D) Mercury has no axial tilt, with its equator always
exposed to direct sunlight.
E) it has no atmosphere to moderate temperatures over
the globe.
Answer: E
5. In size, Mercury is
intermediate between:
A) Earth and Venus.
B) Mars and Earth.
C) the Moon and Mars.
D) Pluto and the Moon.
E) Ceres and Pluto.
Answer: C
6. The chief erosive
agent now on the Moon is:
A) lunar ice melting and refreezing in the polar
regions.
B) lava flows welling up in the mare.
C) volcanic vents in the rugged highlands.
D) the rain of micrometeorites chewing up the regolith.
E) rain from cometary debris melting as it enters the
moon's atmosphere.
Answer: D
7. Which theory of the
Moon's origin is now most in favor?
A) Like the moons of Jupiter, our moon condensed of
leftovers around the equator of the newly formed Earth.
B) The rapidly spinning Earth slung the Moon off from
what is now the Pacific Ocean basin.
C) The Moon formed as a separate planet, then was later
captured by the Earth's gravity.
D) The Moon was a large comet, from the Oort Cloud,
which has now lost almost all of its ices.
E) A Mars-size body struck the young Earth, tilting us
over 23.5 degrees and blowing out ejecta that condensed into the Moon.
Answer: E
8. Which of these
would support the capture theory of the Moon's origin?
A) the Caloris basin on Mercury
B) the retrograde orbit and large orbital inclination
of Neptune's moon Triton
C) the rings of all the jovians lying around their
equators
D) the Pluto-Charon system
E) the four large moons of Jupiter orbit its equator
Answer: B
Chapter 9: Venus
1)
Why does Venus appear so bright to the eye?
A) It gets closer to us than any other planet does.
B) Venus lies closer to the Sun, so gets more intense
sunlight.
C) The planet's cloud-cover is highly reflective,
reflecting 60% of the sun's light.
D) As seen from Earth, the disk of Venus can appear
larger than any other planet's.
E) All of the above are correct.
Answer: E
2. Earth and Venus are
often called sister planets; in which ways are they most alike?
A) atmospheric composition and density
B) size, density, and surface gravity
C) surface temperature and pressure
D) cloud composition and meteorology
E) polar caps and rusty red deserts
Answer: B
3. The absence of a
magnetic field on Venus probably stems from its:
A) nearness to the Sun.
B) extremely thick atmosphere.
C) slow rotation.
D) high surface temperatures
E) lower density than Earth, suggesting an absence of
an iron core.
Answer: C
4. Which of the
following contributes to Venus being so hot?
A) It is closer than Earth to the Sun.
B) Its atmosphere is much denser than the Earth's.
C) Its atmosphere is made chiefly of carbon dioxide.
D) It has very little axial tilt so the equator is
always directly exposed to the Sun.
E) All of the above are factors.
Answer: E
Chapter 10: Mars
1)
Why are Mars' seasons more extreme
than ours?
A)
Mars' orbit is more eccentric than the Earth's.
B)
Mars' axial tilt is slightly greater than ours.
C) The
major component of Mars' atmosphere can change phase seasonally.
D)
Mars' atmosphere is thinner, with fewer greenhouse gases.
E) All
of the above are true.
Answer:
E
2. Which is the
correct size order, from smallest to largest?
A)
Mercury, Venus, Mars
B) The
Moon, Earth, Mars
C)
Mercury, Mars, Venus
D)
Mercury, the Moon, Mars
E)
Venus, Mars, Earth
Answer:
C
3. Venus and Mars
probably evolved differently from Earth because:
A) they
are slightly bigger than Earth.
B) they
are more massive than Earth.
C) they
have thicker atmospheres than the Earth.
D) they
formed sooner than Earth.
E) they
orbit at different distances from the Sun.
Answer:
E
4. Why is Mars red?
A) Dust
storms on the planet have blasted the planet so fiercely that the rocks have
reddened.
B) The
iron in the surface rocks have been oxidized over time.
C)
Mercuric oxide is abundant and has a red tint.
D)
Sulfuric acid rain etched a reddish color into iron-rich surface rocks.
E) The
ancient volcanoes poured out vast plains of molten sulfur, much as on Io,
which has now solidified and preserved the reddish color.
Answer:
B
5. The most striking
valley in the solar system is:
A) the
Grand Canyon in Arizona.
B)
Gwenivere on Venus.
C) the
Discovery Scarp of Mercury.
D)
Valles Marineris on Mars.
E)
Valhalla on Callisto.
Answer:
D
6. Rank these magnetic
fields, from weakest to strongest.
A)
Venus, Mars, Mercury, Earth
B)
Mars, Mercury, Venus, Earth
C)
Earth, Venus, Mars, Mercury
D) The
Moon, Mercury, Mars, Venus
E)
Mars, Venus, Earth, Mercury
Answer:
A
Chapter 11: Jupiter
1. How does the mass
of Jupiter compare with that of the other planets?
A) It
is slightly larger and more massive than Saturn.
B) It
is similar to that of the Earth and Venus.
C) It
is twice as massive as all other planets combined.
D) It
is almost as massive as Saturn.
E) It
is about a tenth the mass of the Sun.
Answer:
C
2. How does the
density of Jupiter compare to the terrestrials?
A) It
is denser than all the terrestrials combined.
B) It
is denser than the Moon, but less dense than any of the others.
C) Its
density is slightly less than Mercury, but more than Mars.
D) Its
density is about the same as Mars.
E) Its
density is less than any terrestrial, but almost the same as the Sun's.
Answer:
E
3. What is the name
used to describe the dark bands encircling Jupiter?
A)
belts
B)
brown stripes
C)
zones
D)
zonal flows
E)
convection cells
Answer:
A
4. The most striking
"cloudmark" in Jupiter's atmosphere is the:
A)
Great Dark Spot.
B)
Cassini Division.
C)
Great Red Spot.
D)
Black Hole.
E)
Brown Dwarf.
Answer:
C
5. What would Jupiter
have needed to have become a star?
A) more
moons
B) more
mass
C) a
slower rotation, like the Sun
D) a
different chemical composition
E) a
higher density
Answer:
B
6. What is thought to
lie at the center of Jupiter?
A) a
core of liquid metallic hydrogen
B) a
rocky core, not unlike a terrestrial planet
C)
liquid helium under great pressure
D) a
hydrosphere larger than Earth
E)
hydrogen fusing into helium
Answer:
B
7. How large is
Jupiter's magnetosphere?
A) It
is about as large as the Earth's.
B) It
is so large it extends out to the orbit of Io.
C) It
is a million times the volume of the Earth's, extending beyond the orbit of
Saturn.
D) It
extends inward to the orbit of Mars.
E) It
envelopes even the Sun and rest of the solar system.
Answer: C
8. Which of the
Galilean moons is the densest and most geologically active?
A) Io
B)
Europa
C)
Ganymede
D)
Callisto
E)
Titan
Answer:
A
9. Which of the jovian
moons is the largest and also the largest moon in the solar system, even
bigger than Mercury?
A)
Titan
B)
Triton
C)
Ganymede
D)
Callisto
E)
Umbriel
Answer:
C
Chapter 12: Saturn
1. A critical
difference between Jupiter and Saturn is that:
A)
Jupiter is much larger in diameter.
B) only
Jupiter has belts and zones.
C) only
Saturn has rings.
D)
Jupiter is three times more massive.
E) only
Jupiter is large enough to make liquid metallic hydrogen.
Answer:
D
2. What are Saturn's
rings?
A) a
great disk of liquid helium
B)
large rocky boulders moving in orbit around Saturn
C) a
glowing, flat magnetospheric auroral display
D) a
solid thin disc of material encircling Saturn
E)
small icy particles moving in orbit around Saturn
Answer:
E
3. Why are Saturn's
rings so noticeable?
A) They
are made of metallic hydrogen.
B) They
are made of lots of fresh, bright icy particles from a recent breakup.
C) The
particles in the rings are highly polished from numerous collisions with
other particles.
D) They
are made of nitrogen frost, like the bright surface of Triton.
E)
Saturn is so bright, the rings reflect a lot of light from both Saturn and
the Sun.
Answer:
B
4. Titan is an
interesting moon because:
A)
beneath its clouds, Titan may be Earth-like, with liquid water.
B) the
Huygens rover has sent back images of sedimentary rocks there.
C) it
has a rich atmosphere that may resemble that of the early Earth.
D) it
is known to have ice volcanism on its surface.
E) all
of the above
Answer:
C
Chapter 14: Solar System
Debris
1. The orbits of most
asteroids:
A) lie beyond Neptune.
B) lie entirely beyond the orbit of Mars.
C) cross the orbit of Mars.
D) cross the orbit of Earth.
E) cross the orbits of all four terrestrial planets.
Answer: B
2. What is the typical
size of most known asteroids?
A) a few meters
B) a few kilometers
C) a few hundred kilometers
D) larger than the Moon
E) larger than the Earth
Answer: B
3. The nucleus, or
main solid body, of a comet has a typical size of:
A) a few centimeters.
B) a few meters.
C) a few kilometers.
D) a few hundred kilometers.
E) a few thousand kilometers.
Answer: C
4. The orbits of most
comets:
A) are like the planets, fairly circular and in the
ecliptic plane.
B) lie almost entirely beyond the orbit of Neptune.
C) have perihelions within the orbits of Mercury.
D) go no farther out than Pluto, then return to the sun
again.
E) are shorter than the 76 year period for Comet
Halley.
Answer: B
5. The Oort Cloud is
thought to be:
A) the cloud of gas and dust from which our solar
system formed.
B) a cloud of debris that occasionally encounters the
Earth, causing a meteor shower.
C) the spherical cloud of comets and some larger icy
bodies surrounding the outer solar system.
D) a cloud of asteroids moving between the orbits of
Mars and Jupiter.
E) the material in the ecliptic plane that creates the
zodiacal light.
Answer: C
6. What are comets
made of?
A) silicates and rocky dust
B) metallic dust particles
C) dark colored complex hydrocarbons
D) methane, ammonia, and water ice
E) all of the above
Answer: E
7. From its orbit, we
now recognize Pluto as the largest member of the:
A) moons of Neptune.
B) asteroid belt.
C) Kuiper Belt.
D) Oort Cloud.
E) Zodiacal Belt.
Answer: C
8. Meteorites are
valuable to astronomers because:
A) they may provide evidence about the process in which
the solar system was born.
B) originated in other solar systems.
C) they contain diamonds and gold.
D) they reveal the contents of interstellar space.
E) they prove that life can only exist on the Earth.
Answer: A
9. What causes a
meteor shower?
A) The solar wind chills the plasma and causes it to
condense into particles.
B) Earth intercepts a stray swarm of asteroids left by
a collision.
C) Earth crosses the orbit of an old comet, whose orbit
is littered with debris.
D) Earth encounters the asteroid belt when Mars'
gravity pushes it toward us.
E) A small constellation of dying stars disintegrates.
Answer: C
Chapter 17: Red Giants
and Whiter Dwarfs
1. The
Hertzsprung-Russell Diagram plots ________ against the spectral type or
temperature.
A) distance
B) luminosity or absolute magnitude
C) brightness or apparent magnitude
D) size or density
E) mass
Answer: B
Chapter 25
Galaxies and Dark Matter
1. Based on galactic
rotation curves and cluster dynamics, we think dark matter:
A) does
not exist.
B) is a
very minor component on the total mass of the universe.
C) is
best detected by X-rays in intracluster gas clouds.
D)
comprises about 90% of the entire mass of the universe.
E)
exists, but has no observable effect on the visible universe.
Answer:
D
2. Collisions between
galaxies can:
A) turn irregulars into ellipticals.
B) cause both galaxies to collapse into a supermassive
black hole.
C) cause bursts of star formation as starburst
galaxies.
D) cause large numbers of stars to collide and explode.
E) hardly ever occur; like stars, galaxies are far
apart, compared to their sizes.
Answer: C
3. The redshift of
galaxies in the universe is correctly interpreted as:
A) a Doppler shift due to the motions of the galaxies
through space.
B) an "aging" of the light.
C) the effect of intergalactic dust.
D) space itself is expanding with time; the wavelengths
of photon are stretched while they travel through space.
E) the difference in temperatures of distant and nearby
galaxies.
Answer: D
4. If the density of
the universe is less than critical, then:
A) the universe will "survive" to expand forever.
B) the universe on average must be less than 2.73K in
temperature.
C) the universal expansion must stop within about
twenty billion years.
D) the universe must be static, and the red shifts are
not cosmological.
E) the universe will begin contracting immediately into
the "Big Crunch."
Answer: A
5. In which of the
following models will the universe stop expanding?
A) High Density Universe
B) Low Density Universe
C) Steady State Universe
D) Critical Density Universe
E) Euclidean Universe
Answer: A
6. What is the meaning
of a "closed" universe?
A) The universe will expand forever.
B) The universe will someday stop expanding and start
to collapse.
C) The universe will stop expanding in an infinite
amount of time.
D) The universe is in a steady-state.
E) The universe will disappear into a white hole in
time.
Answer: B
7. The cosmic
microwave background is important mostly because:
A) its detection lead to the discovery of dark energy.
B) its detection opened a new form of radiation to
observation.
C) it confirmed a major prediction made by the Big Bang
theory.
D) it showed that the universe is open.
E) it showed that the universe is closed.
Answer: C